i could've replied to everything i read but that would take too long and i can't be bothered
but the bolded part stuck with me...
For straight and gay people i (assume, i wouldn't know) that there is a distinct attraction to the gender.
For bisexual people as, said above by saint_tails (i'm sorry i don't know your name ) i believe there would be a distinction of attraction for both men and women.
But i think for those who are label-less (and possibly those who are pansexual?) there is no distinction. There is no, i fancy them and them, there is I fancy her and him and him, and she's also nice, i fancy her.
do you see what i mean?